Are you looking to make your career in Banking Sector? Definitely you will say yes why not! But how to make a solid entry without any chances of loss? How to prepare yourself? What will be the procedure of the examinations? We are sure your mind must be occupied with such questions? And it’s true after all you are getting your Dream Job! But you need not to worry at all as because we are here with you always to ensure full support and help. We will provide you such ease steps through which you can easily break the chain of hardships.
This section is for those candidates who are striving hard to get their luck enrolled. In this section we will help you out in all possible ways like we will suggest you how to prepare for banking competitive examination, how to complete your assignment on time, which all questions to avoid and many more like that.
Even we will figure out the some question papers of last years along with simple solutions so that you can chalk out the differences during your preparations. Likewise our aim is to see you all on that HOT SEAT!
ALL THE BEST
Vinay Gaur
vinaygaur2@gmail.com
Bank Sample Paper for Upcoming Bank Recruitment Exams
(English Language Ability Questions)
A.
Part I [1 x 7 = 7 Marks]
Questions 1-7 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence.
1. After the funeral, the residents of the apartment building __________
a. sent faithfully flowers all weeks to the cemetery.
b. sent to the cemetery each week flowers faithfully.
c. sent flowers faithfully to the cemetery each week.
d. sent each week faithfully to the cemetery flowers.
2. Because the first pair of pants did not fit properly, he asked for ________
a. another pants
b. others pants
c. the others ones
d. another pair
3. The committee has met and _________
a. they have reached a decision
b. it has formulated themselves some opinions
c. its decision was reached at
d. it has reached a decision
4. Alfred Adams has not ________
a. lived lonelynessly in times previous
b. never before lived sole
c. ever lived alone before
d. before lived without the company of his friends
5. John’s score on the test is the highest in the class; ___________
a. he should study last night
b. he should have studied last night
c. he must have studied last night
d. he must had to study last night
6. Henry will not be able to attend the meeting tonight because _________
a. he must to teach a class
b. he will be teaching a class
c. of he will teach a class
d. he will have teaching a class
7. Having been served lunch, __________
a. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee
b. the committee members discussed the problem
c. it was discussed by the committee members the problem
d. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee
Part II [1 x 7 = 7 Marks]
In question 8-14, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.
8. The main office of the factory can be found in Maple Street in New York City.
a. the main
b. be found
c. in
d. in
9. Because there are less members present tonight than there were last night, we must wait until the next meeting to vote.
a. less
b. than
c. were
d. to vote
10. David is particularly fond of cooking, and he often cooks really delicious meals.
a. particularly
b. fond of
c. often cooks
d. really
11. The progress made in space travel for the early 1960s is remarkable.
a. progress
b. made
c. in space
d. for
12. Sandra has not rarely missed a play or concert since she was seventeen years old.
a. not rarely
b. a play
c. since
d. was seventeen years old
13. The governor has not decided how to deal with the new problems already.
a. The
b. has
c. how to deal with
d. already
14. There was a very interesting news on the radio this morning about the earthquake in Italy.
a. there was
b. a
c. on the
d. about
B.
Part III [1 x 6 = 6 Marks]
In question 15-20, the given pair of words contains a specific relationship to each other. Select the best pair of choices which expresses the same relationship as the given.
15. PROCRASTINATOR : DELAY ::
a. flatterer : undermine
b. genius : creativity
c. tyrant : influence
d. general : salute
16. APIARY : BEE ::
a. mountain : skier
b. airport : flight
c. schedule : event
d. stable : horse
17. OVATION : APPLAUSE ::
a. grief : loss
b. rout : defeat
c. triumph : failure
d. pathway : ruin
18. DOLPHIN : FLIPPER ::
a. insect : antenna
b. burglar : mask
c. gull : wing
d. plane : radar
19. WATERTIGHT : MOISTURE ::
a. hermetic : air
b. combatant : strife
c. somnolent : boredom
d. ocean : shore
20. PLAYWRIGHT : SCRIPT ::
a. composer : score
b. physician : diagnosis
c. verse : poet
d. king : parliament
Part IV [1 x 5 = 5 Marks]
In question 21-25, choose the best word, which is most opposite in the meaning to the given word.
21. LUCID
a. underlying
b. complex
c. luxurious
d. tight
22. LATITUDE
a. frenzy
b. attitude
c. altitude
d. restriction
23. GRATUITOUS
a. Noticeable
b. Useful
c. Needful
d. Original
24. MERITORIOUS
a. Simple
b. Inferior
c. Unrewarding
d. Young
25. VOUCHSAFE
a. steal
b. postpone
c. refuse
d. injure
Passage Comprehension [1 x 7 = 7 Marks]
Line 1. A recent investigation by scientists at the U.S. Geological Survey shows that strange animal behavior might help predict earthquakes. Investigators found such occurrences within a ten-kilometer radius of the epicenter of a fairly recent quake. Some birds screeched and flew about wildly; dogs yelped and ran around uncontrollably.
Line 5. Scientists believe that animals can perceive environmental changes several hours or even days before the mishaps. Animals were notes as being restless for several weeks before a Tashkent, Uzbekistan, earthquake. An hour before the disaster, domestic animals refused to go indoors and dogs howled and barked furiously. In 1960, an earthquake struck Agadir in Morocco. Survivors recall that stray animals, including dogs, were seen streaming out of town before the earthquake. In a safari zoo near San Francisco, llamas would not eat the evening before a 1979 quake, and they ran around wildly all night.
Line 12. Unusual animal behavior preceding earthquakes has been noted for centuries. British Admiral Robert Fitzroy reported huge flocks of screaming seabirds over Conception, Chile, in 1835. An hour and half later, dogs were seen fleeing, and ten minutes later the town was destroyed. Similar stories of chickens running around in apparent states of panic, horses trembling and dogs barking incessantly were recorded throughout the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries by survivors of earthquake destruction in India, Yugoslavia, Peru, Mexico and the Unites States.
Line 18. In 1976, after monitoring bizarre animal behavior, the Chinese predicted a devastating earthquake. Although hundreds of thousands of people were killed, the government was able to evacuate millions of others people and thus keep the death toll at a lower level.
1. What prediction may be made by observing animal behavior?
a. An impending earthquake
b. The number of people who will die
c. The ten-kilometer radium from the epicenter
d. The fact that an earthquake has occurred.
2. The author implies that animals are aware of an impending earthquake because
a. Of their intelligence
b. They have certain instinctive abilities to perceive that human do not possess
c. They are generally closer to the epicenter than the human observers
d. They react to other animal behaviors
3. The word “evacuate” in line 20 closest in meaning to
a. remove
b. exile
c. Destroy
d. emaciate
4. All of the following statement are true EXCEPT
a. some animals may be able to sense an approaching earthquake
b. by observing animal behavior scientist perhaps can predict earthquakes
c. the Chines have successfully predicted an earthquake and saved may lives
d. only dogs and horses seem to possess the special perception that allows them to predict earthquakes
5. In line 3 the word ” epicenter” is nearest in meaning to
a. stratosphere
b. Contour
c. Periphery
d. Core
6. The passage implies that if scientist can accurately predict earthquakes there will be
a. fewer animal going crazy
b. a lower death rate
c. fewer people evacuated
d. fewer environmental changes
7. In line 18 “devastating” means most nearly the same as
a. destructive
b. voracious
c. intense
d. forthcoming
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Bank Sample Paper for Upcoming Bank Recruitment Exams
(Logical and Analytical Reasoning Questions)
Part I: Logical Reasoning Ability [1 x 9 = 9 Marks]
For Question 1-5 : Six actors – Bob, Carol, Dave. Ed, Frank, and Grace – are auditioning for a part in an off-Broadway play. The auditions for a part in an off-Broadway play. The auditions will take place over four consecutive days, starting on a Thursday. Each actor will have one audition. The days on which the different actors will audition must conform to the following conditions:
At least one audition will take place on any day.
No more than two auditions will take place on any day
No more than 3 auditions will take place on any two consecutive days
Bob’s audition must take place on Saturday
Carol’s audition must take place on the same day as another audition
Frank’s audition must take place on a day before grace’s audition
Dave’s audition must take place on a day after Ed’s audition
1. if only one audition takes place on Thursday, which actor could have that audition
a. Bob
b. Carol
c. Dave
d. Frank
e. Grace
2. If Bob’s and frank’s auditions are on the same day, which of the following must be true
a. Dave’s audition will take place on Thursday
b. Dave’s audition will take place on Friday
c. Grace’s audition will take place on Thursday
d. Carol’s audition will take place on Sunday
e. Ed’s audition will take place on Sunday
3. If the director decides to two hold the auditions on Thursday and two on Sunday, how many actors would be eligible to audition on Fridaya. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
4. If Ed and Grace have their auditions on the same day, which of the following must be true?
a. Ed’s audition will take place on Thursday
b. Frank’s audition will take place on Thursday
c. Carol’s audition will take place on Saturday
d. Grace’s audition will take place on Saturday
e. Carol’s audition will take place on Sunday
5. If Ed’s audition is on Saturday, which of the following actors cannot audition on the same day as any other actor?
a. Bob
b. Carol
c. Ed
d. Frank
e. Grace
For Question 6-9 : As part of their sports physicals, seven collegiate athletes – F, G, H, I, J, K & L – are being weighed. In announcing the results of the physical exams, the coach has given the following information:
None of the athletes is exactly the same weight as another athlete
K is heavier than L, but lighter than H
I is heavier than J
Both F and G are heavier than H.
6. Each of the following could be true EXCEPT
a. F is the heaviest
b. G is the heaviest
c. I is the heaviest
d. More than three athletes are heavier than K
e. More than three athletes are lighter than K
7. Which of the following, if true, would be sufficient to determine which athlete is the lightest?a. I is the heaviest
b. I is lighter than K
c. K is heavier than J
d. J is heavier than K
e. Exactly five students are lighter than F
8. If J is heavier than F, how many different rankings, by weight, of the athletes are possible?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 6
e. 8
9. If H is heavier than I, which of the following CANNOT be true?
a. I’s weight is equal to the average of F’s weight and G’s weight
b. I’s weight is equal to the average of K’s weight and L’s weight
c. J’s weight is equal to the average of K’s weight and L’s weight
d. J is the second lightest
e. J is the lightest
A. Part II : Logical Reasoning Questions [2 x 8 = 16 Marks]
Select the best answer for each of the following questions.
10. Someone wishes to deduce the conclusion that there are at least two men in Calcutta who have exactly the same number of hair on their heads. He begins with a premise that there are more men in Calcutta than there are hair on the head of any person in the entire world(whether men or women).
The desired conclusion can be validly deduced
a. From the original premise just as it stands
b. If we add a premise that no man in Calcutta is completely bald, but not from the original premise as it stands.
c. If we add the premise that there are at least as many men in Calcutta as women, but not from the original premise as it stands.
d. Only if we add the premise that no man in Calcutta is completely bald, but not from the premise as it exactly stands.
e. Only if we add the premise that there are at least as many men in Calcutta as women, but not from the original premise as it stands.
11. Department stores range from two to eight floors in height .If a store has more than three floors, it has an elevator.
If the statements above are true, which of the following must also be true?
a. Second floors do not have elevators
b. Seventh floors have elevators
c. Only floors above the third floors have elevators
d. All floors may be reached by elevators
e. Some two-floor department stores do not have elevators
12. A valid argument is often defined as one in which it is not possible for all the premises to be true and the conclusion false. A circular argument is sometimes defined as one on which one of the premises is identical to the conclusion.From these definitions we can infer that…
a. Every circular argument is valid
b. Every argument is circular.
c. No circular argument is valid
d. Some circular arguments are valid, and some are not.
e. Some circular arguments are not valid, and some valid arguments are not circular.
Questions 13 and 14 refer to the following scenario:
In a horse race involving six horses, three of the entries were Bag O’Bones, Cold Molasses, and Three-Leg Charlie. All six horses finished, one after the other.
13. No horse finished ahead of Cold Molasses, and no horse finished behind Bag O’Bones. Also, no horse finished between Cold Molasses and Three-Leg Charlie. Therefore,
a. Cold Molasses finished second or third.
b. Bag O’Bones came in fourth or better.
c. Three-Leg Charlie finished second or third.
d. Three-Leg Charlie may have finished first, but atleast he did not finish last.
e. Bag O’Bones finished ahead of Cold Molasses.
14. Four horses finished between Bag O’Bones and Cold Molasses. Therefore,
a. Cold Molasses finished last.
b. Bag O’Bones finished second or third.
c. Bag O’Bones finished fifth.
d. Three-Leg Charlie did not finish last.
e. Either Bag O’Bones finished fifth, or Three-Leg Charlie came in third.
15. Administrators and executives are members of the most stable occupation.
The stability mentioned in the above statement could be dependent on each of the following factors excepta. Training and skills.
b. Nature of the occupation.
c. Status
d. Relatively high income
e. Rate of turnover
16. A recent newspaper feature story listed several factors, as “predictors” of likelihood of premature death .Two of these factors were a sedentary life style without regular physical exercise, and sleeping more than 12 hours daily.
If a person were to respond to this news by both joining as an exercise club and buying an alarm clock, that person would probably bea. Mistaking an explanation for an argument
b. Mistaking an argument for an explanation
c. Mistaking a premise for a conclusion
d. Mistaking a cause for an indicator
e. Mistaking an indicator by a cause
17. Ellen : “All three of Shirley’s children have the measles!”Lois: “As a matter of fact, all three of Shirley’s children are fine!”
Accepting the assumption that nobody who has measles is fine, which of the following is true about this exchange?
a. It is possible that both Ellen and Lois are right about Shirley’s children.
b. It is possible that both Ellen and Lois are mistaken about Shirley’s children.
c. Either Ellen is right about Shirley’s children, or Lois is right about them, but they are not both right.
d. Ellen and Lois might be both right about Shirley’s children, and they might both be wrong about them.
e. None of these alternatives correctly identifies the possibilities for this scenario.
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Bank Sample Paper for Upcoming Bank Recruitment Exams
(Problem Solving Ability Questions)
Part I : Problem Solving Ability [1 x 25 = 25 Marks]
1. A truck departed from Newton at 11:53a.m. and arrived in Far City, 240 miles away, at 4:41 p.m. on the same day. What was the approximate average speed of the truck on this trip?
a. 16/1,200 MPH
b. 40/288 MPH
c. 1,494/240 MPH
d. 50 MPH
2. If m,n,o and p are real numbers, each of the following expressions equals m(nop) EXCEPT
a. (op)(mn) b. ponm c. (mn)(mo)(mp) d. (mp)(no)
3. If the ratio of women to men in a meeting is 4 to 1, what percent of the persons in the meeting are men?a. 20% b. 25% c. 33 1/3% d. 80%
4. Tom received 89, 94, 86, and 96 on the first algebra tests. What grade must he receive on his last test to have an average of 92?
a. 92 b. 94 c. 91 d. 95
5. If the measures of the three angles of a triangle are (3x + 15), (5x – 15), and (2x + 30), what is the measure of each angle?a. 75 b. 60 c. 45 d. 25
6. Which of the following equations can be used to find a number x, if the difference between the square of this number and 21 is the same as the product of 4 times the number?a. x – 21 = 4x b. x2- 21 = 4x c. x2 = 21-4x d. x + 4×2=21
7. Emile receives a flat weekly salary of Rs.240 plus 12% commission of the total volume of all sales he makes. What must his rupees volume be in a week if he is to make a total weekly of Rs.540?a. Rs.2,880 b. Rs.3,600 c. Rs.6,480 d. Rs.2,500
8. A and B undertake to do a work for Rs.56. A can do it alone in 7 days and B in 8 days. If with the assistance of a boy they finish the work in 3 days then the boy gets Rs.–a. 11 b. 45 c. 43 d. 21
9. A postal truck leaves its station and heads for Chicago, averaging 40mph. An error in the mailing schedule is spotted and 24 minutes after the truck leaves, a car is sent to overtake the truck. If the car averages 50mph, how long will it take to catch the postal truck?a. 1.6 hours b. 3 hours c. 2 hours d. 1.5 hours
10. In a class of 40 students, 30 speak French and 20 speak German. What is the lowest possible number of students who speak both languages?a. 5 b. 20 c. 15 d. 10
11. The value of B in the equation a = (h/2)(B+b) isa. (2a – b)/h b. 2h/a – b c. 2a – b d. 2a/h – b
12. The perimeter of a square inscribed in the circumference of radius R isa. 4R b. 8R c. 2R(2)1/2 d. 4R(2)1/2
13. If R,S, and Q can wallpaper a house in 8 hours and R and S can do it in 12 hours, how long will it take Q alone to wallpaper the house ?a. 12 hours b. 24 hours c. 8 hours d. 20 hours
14. An old picture has dimensions 33 inches by 24 inches. What one length must be cut from each dimension so that the ratio of the shorter side to the longer side is 2:3?a. 2 inches b. 6 inches c. 9 inches d. 10 1/2 inches
15. In a group of 30 people the average height is 6 feet and 2 inches. Therefore, we can assume that1. everyone is 6ft and 2 inches
2. most of the people are 6ft and 2 inches.
3. not all could be taller than 6ft and 2 inches.
a. 2 only b. 3 only c. 1 and 2 only d. 1, 2 and 3
16. One wall being made entirely of bricks is 40% built. If we need 1,200 more bricks to complete the wall, how many bricks will the wall have ?a. 1,500 b. 1,800 c. 2,000 d. 2,400
17. In a College Bookstore where all books are the same price, a + b books are selling for Rs.1,000. Myron buys 12 books and for each one has a discount of Rs.1. How much does Myron need to pay ?
a. [(a + b) - 1] x 12 b. [(a + b)/1000 - 1] x 12 c. [(1000/(a + b)) - 1] x 12 d. [a + b] x 1
18. A square is inscribed in a circle of area 18p. What is the length of a side of the square ?
a. 6 b. 3 c. 3(2)1/2 d. 6(2)1/2
19. A box contains 6 red marbles and 4 blue marbles. What is the probability that if 2 marbles are simultaneously drawn from the box, both will be red ?
a. 2/3 b. 1/3 c. 1/2 d. 1/5
20. If it is 250 kms from Delhi to Chandigarh and 120 kms from Delhi to Jaipur, what percentage of the distance from Delhi to Chandigarh is the distance from Delhi to Jaipur?
a. 12 b. 24 c. 36 d. 48
21. A car goes 15 kms on a litre of petrol. When it is driven at 60 kms per hour it only goes 80% as far. How many litres of petrol will it take to travel 120 kms driving at 60 kms per hour?
a. 2 b. 6.4 c. 8 d. 9.6
22. The solution of the equation 4 – 5(2y + 4) = 4 is
a. 1.-2/5 b. 8 c. 4 d. -2
23. I went to Lucky Duck Casino and in the first game I lost one-third of my money, in the second game I lost half of the rest. If I still have Rs.1,000, how much money did I have when I arrived at the Casino?
a. Rs.1,000 b. Rs.2,000 c. Rs.3,000 d. Rs.6,000
24. For each Rupee spent by the sales department, the research department spends 20 paise. For every Rs. 4 spent by the research department, the packing department spends Rs.1.50. The triple ratio of the money spent by the sales department to the money spent by the research department to the money spent by the packing department can be expressed as
a. 40 : 8 : 3 b. 20 : 4 : 1 c. 8 : 4 : 1 d. 1 : 1 : 5 e. 2 : 1 : 5
25. From the beginning to the end of 1996, the price of a rare book rose 20 percent. In 1997, it dropped 25 percent. In 1998, it rose 20 percent. What percent of 1996`s starting price is 1998`s starting price?a. 90 b. 95 c. 100 d. 108
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BANK OF MAHARASHTRA PO’S Previous Year Solved Paper
(General Awareness)
1. The Govt. of India has taken a decision to open more IITs during the year 2008-09. These IITs will be in which of the following groups of States?
(A) Bihar,Rajasthan,Andhra Pradesh
(B) Andhra Pradesh,Orissa,Karnataka
(C) Karnataka, Tamilnadu, Kerala
(D) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
2. Which of the following is /are NOT the highlights of the Union Budget 2008-09 ?
(1) A risk Capital fund is to be set up and maintained by one of the financial Institutes.
(2) Allocation for defence is reduced by 10% to make it Rs. 10,000 Crore.
(3) Several new scheme to be introduced for providing social security to the people in unorganized sectors.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Both (1) & (2)
(E) All 1,2 & 3
ANS (B) The amount allocated for for defence in the budget 2008-09 is Rs. 105600 Crore which is higher than that in the Budget 2007-08.
3. To help farming community the Govt. of India has decided to raise the minimum support price of Paddy for current Kharif marketing season. What is that Price ?(A) Rs. 800/quintal
(B) Rs. 900/quintal
(C) Rs. 950/quintal
(D) Rs. 1200/quintal
(E) none of these
ANS (D) The purchase price recommended by the CACP fOR The Crop Year 2008-09 for general category Rice is Rs. 1000 per quintal and for A- Grade is Rs. 1050 per quintal.
4. Wchich of the following is the correct definition of the term commercial paper ?(1) It is nothing but the popular name of the judicial stamp papers used to register financial transactions.
(2) It is one of the instrument through which corporate raise debt from the market.
(3) It is the name of the “Certificate of Deposits” provided by the banks to its retail customers.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Both (1) & (2)
(E) All (1),(2) & (3)
ANS (B)
5. As per the Railway Budget 2008-09 the operating ratio of Railways is pitched at which of the following levels? Approximately—
(A) 70%
(B) 75%
(C) 98%
(D) 90%
(E) 81%
ANS (E) As per the Railway Budget 2008-09 the operating ratio of Railways is pitched at 81.4% .
6. As per the new figures released in recent past what has been the ratio of taxes to gross domestic product (Tax-GDP)in 2007-08 ? Approximately —
(A) 8%
(B) 9%
(C) 10-%
(D) 11.5%
(E) 12.5%
ANS (E)
7. Which of the following companies has got “Navratna Status” recently ?
(A) National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC)
(B) National Textile Corporation (NTC)
(C) Maruti Udyog Ltd.
(D) IDBI Bnak Ltd.
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
8. Who amongst the following established the “Anandvan” a rehabilitation centre for Leprocy patients in Maharashtra ?
(A) Baba Amte
(B) Pandurang Shashtri Athawle
(C) Medha Patkar
(D) Asaram Bapu
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
9. Thaksin Shinawatra’s name is associated with which of the follwing countries ?
(A) Singapore
(B) Thailand
(C) North Korea
(D) Soth Korea
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
10. Who amongst the following agreed to supply aircraft carrier “Gorshkov” to India for its defense services ?
(A) Russia
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) Italy
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
11. Bhupen Hazarika is the recipient of the life time achievement award and is provided the status of the cabinet minister . Which of the following Stae Govt. has honoured him in this manner ?
(A) Orissa
(B) Assam
(C) West Bengal
(D) Maharashtra
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
12. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the “Kishore Kumar Award” given by the Madhya Pradesh Govt. ?
(A) Shabana Azmi
(B) Amitabh Bachchan
(C) Manoj Kumar
(D) Dev Anand
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
13.The Under -19 Cricket world cup 2008 was won by which of the following contries ?
(A) Malysia
(B) India
(C) Pakistan
(D) Australia
(E) England
ANS (B) India defeated South Africa in the final match by seven runs.
14. Who amongst the following was the chief guest in India’s Republic Day Function ?
(A) Samak Sundaravej
(B) Gordon Brown
(C) Boris Tadic
(D) Nikolas Sarkozy
(E) None of these
ANS (E)
15. Who amongst the following is the recipient of Padma Vibhushan given away recently ?
(A) Anu Malik
(B) Shan
(C) Asha Bhosle
(D) Sonu Nigam
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
16. Which of the following Staes tops in primary ,upper primary education in India ?
(A) Tamilnadu
(B) Haryana
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
17. The 11th five year paln wishes to raise the existing 2% growth in agriculture and allied activities to which of the following levels by the year 2012 ?
(A) 8%
(B) 6%
(C) 5%
(D) 4%
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
18. As a policy the Reserve Bank of India wishes to contain inflation at which of the following levels ?
(A) 5%
(B) 4.5%
(C) 4%
(D) 6%
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
19. World Day of Water is observed on which of the following days ?
(A) March 22
(B) February 22
(C) January 22
(D) May 22
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
20. Who amongst the following players has completed 16000 runs in One Day International Cricket matches recently ?
(A) Anil Kumble
(B) Rahul Dravid
(C) Saurav Ganguly
(D) Irfan Pathan
(E) Sachin Tendulkar
ANS (E)
21. Why was the name of Anatolyevic Medvedev in news recently ?
(A) He has taken over as the president of Russia
(B) He has taken over as the prime minister of Russia
(C) He is the new president of South Korea
(D) He is the new prime minister of South Korea
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
22. International Desert Festival 2008 was organized in February 2008 in —
(A) Bhuj Ganganagar
(B) Ganganagar
(C) Bikaner
(D) Jaisalmer
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
23. The first ever Youth Olympic Games are scheduled to be held in 2010. These games will be orgsnized in –
(A) Moscow
(B) New Delhi
(C) Beijing
(D) Quala Lumpur
(E) None of these
ANS (E) The first ever Youth Olympic Games are scheduled to be held in 2010 in Singapore.
24. Who amongst the following has taken over as the president of Serbia ?
(A) Raul castro
(B) Stefen Spielberg
(C) Boris Tadic
(D) Jose Manual Ramos Horta
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
25. The general election in Iran are due in 2008. Iran elects its parliament for a period of —
(A) 2 years only
(B) 3 years only
(C) 4 years only
(D) 5 years only
(E) 6 years only
ANS (C)
26. Luciana Aymar who aws adjudged the world hockey player 2007 is from which of the following countries ?(A) Germany
(B) Argentina
(C) Italy
(D) Russia
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
27. which of the following State Government has decided to provide ownership rights to Tribal over forest land being cultivated by them since last 10 years ?(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Andhra Pradesh
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
28. Which of the following committees recommended the revival of Cooperative Credit Institutions in States ?(A) Vaidyanathan Committee
(B) Rangrajan Committee
(C) Sachchar Committee
(D) Rakesh Mohan Committee
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
29. As we all know the Chinese economy is a booming economy and its export have played a significant role in it. What was the share of China’s Export as compared to its GDP in 2007 ?
(A) 20%
(B) 30
(C) 40%
(D) 50%
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
30. Delhi won the Ranji Trophy for the seventh time in January 2008 by defeating ——
(A) Railways
(B) Haryana
(C) Mharashtra
(D) Guajarat
(E) Uttar Pradesh
ANS (E)
31. Gagan Nrang , who got a silver medal in an International Championship held in Munich,is a/an —
(A) 100 metre runner
(B) Badminton Player
(C) Chess Player
(D) Swimmer
(E) Air Fifle Shooter
ANS (E)
32. As per the decision taken by the Govt. of India two financial inclusion funds are set up with an overall corpus of Rs. 500 Crore each. These funds- financial inclusion fund and financial inclusion technology funds are to be set up by the initial contribution made by the –
(A) SIDBI,NABARD & UTI
(B) NABARD,UTI & RBI
(C) Govt. of India,NABARD & RBI
(D) SIDBI,Govt. of India & IDBI Bank
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
33. As per the Govt. Policy the provision of the subsidy for interest subvention to Coopeartive Sugar Mills is done by which of the following agencies/organizations ?
(A) Commission for Agriculture cost & price
(B) Nationa Bank for Agriculture & Rural Development
(C) Ministry of Agriculture
(D) Natioanl Commission on Farmers
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
34. Banks these days have launched a new scheme product known as “Reverse Mortage” . The scheme is designed keeping which of the following groups of society in consideration ?
(A) Youngers who have just started earning
(B) Defense personnel whose life is always at high risk
(C) Senior Citizen
(D) Women who do not have independent source of income
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
35. Which of the following countries is governed by the Norweigen-mediated ceasefire Agreement to end its dispute with a group of rebellions ?
(A) Nepal
(B) Myanmar
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Sri Lanka
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
36. As per the news report SEBI has allowed short selling by FIs/MFs from ist February,2008 . What is “Short Selling” ?
(1) Selling of shares that the seller does not own at the time of trading
(2) Selling of shares on the same day or on the day they were alloted to the trader.
(3) Selling of shares on a much lower price due to turbulent market situations
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
37. Prime minister os India on his visit to China a few months back signed a detailed agreement with the sama. What is/are the major highlights of the agreement ?
(1) Both the countries agreed to continue high level exchange of views. Indian President is invited to China.
(2) India to host joint millitary exercise in 2008.
(3) India has decided to raise the issue of Tibet in UNO. China has agreed for the same.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 & 2
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1,2 & 3
ANS (C)
38. As per the reports in the leading newspapers Securities & Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has asked the Mutual Fund Industry to stop “MISSELLING” their scheme to investors. What is misselling of Products ?
(1) Misselling takes place when mutual funds are sold without telling the likely returns.
(2) When agents sell the products without telling investors what are the risk involved in investing in mutual funds.
(3) When agents invest somebody’s money in mutual funds without their knowledge , it is called Misselling.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
39. The sensitive Index of the Bombay Stock Exchsange keeps on changing positively and negatively both. Which of the following is/are the main reasons which contributed for his sudden change in the same ?(1) Higher GDP growth
(2) Continuous foreign funds flow
(3) High volume of forex reserves
(4) Only 1 Recession in USA
(A) Only 1 & 2
(B) Only 2 & 3
(C) Both 3 & 4
(D) Only 2
(E) All 1,2 ,3 & 4
ANS (B)
40. The USA , as reported in the leading newspapers is proceeding towards ‘recession’. What happens when an economy goes in the grip of ‘recession’?
(1) GDP growth slow down
(2) People lose their jobs
(3) Foreign exchange reserve goes up substantially as lot of loans/grants star pouring in .
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
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Vijaya Bank Probationary Officers Examination, 2008
(Reasoning Ability: Solved Paper)
1. ‘34’ is related ‘12’ in the same way as ‘59’ is related to—(A) 45
(B) 14
(C) 42
(D) 38
(E) 47
2. What should come next in the following number sequence ?
2 2 3 2 3 4 2 3 4 5
2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6
(A) 2
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 3
(E) None of these
3. Among P, Q, R, S, T and U, R is taller than only P and U. S is shorter than only T and Q. If each of them has a different height, who among them will be the third from top when they are arranged in descending order of their height ?(A) R
(B) P
(C) S
(D) Q
(E) None of these
4. Vikas walked 10 metres towards North, took a left turn and walked 15 metres and again took a left turn and walked 10 metres and stopped walking. Towards which direction was he facing when he stopped walking ?(A) South
(B) South-West
(C) South-East
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?(A) B D
(B) C E
(C) G I
(D) F H
(E) NL
6. How many such 7s are there in the following number sequence each of which is immediately preceded by 5 and not immediately followed by 8 ?2 3 5 7 8 9 3 4 5 7 6 1 9 3
5 7 4 8 3 2 5 7 8 8 9 2 5
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
7. If it is possible to form a number with the first, the fourth and the seventh digits of the number 4671358, which is the perfect sequare of a two-digit odd number, which of the following will be the digit in the tenth place of that two-digit odd number ? If no such number can be formed, give ‘O’ as the answer and if more than one such number can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer—(A) 2
(B) 9
(C) 3
(D) O
(E) X
8. Among P, Q, R, S and T, Q is younger than only S and R and older than T. Who among them is the oldest ?(A) S
(B) R
(C) P
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
9. In a certain code ‘59346’ is written as ‘$AD%F’ and ‘8173’ is written as ‘HB#D’. How is ‘9865’ written in that code ?(A) H A F $
(B) A F H $
(C) A D F $
(D) B H F $
(E) None of these
10. If ‘M’ denotes ‘÷’, ‘K, denotes ‘–’, ‘T’ denotes ‘×’ and ‘R’ denotes ‘+’, then—20 K 16 T 8 M 4 R 6 = ?
(A) 18
(B) – 6
(C) – 12
(D) – 18
(E) None of these
11. Pointing to a boy, Meena said “He is the only grandson of my grandfather”. How is the boy related to Meena ?(A) Brother
(B) Cousin
(C) Uncle
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
12. B is sister of D. M is father of D. N. is sister of M. How is B related to N ?(A) Sister
(B) Aunt
(C) Niece
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?(A) Fruit
(B) Flower
(C) Leaf
(D) Petal
(E) Tree
14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?(A) 26
(B) 34
(C) 72
(D) 46
(E) 38
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?(A) Cuckoo
(B) Crow
(C) Bat
(D) Parrot
(E) Sparrow
16. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TERMINATE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
17. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, the fifth, the sixth and the tenth letters of the word STREAMLINE, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer—
(A) E
(B) A
(C) M
(D) X
(E) Y
Directions (Q. 18 to 24)—In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three
conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem
to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the
given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
18. Statements : Some blades are papers. Some papers are books. Some books are pens.
Conclusions :I. Some pens are papers.
II. Some books are blades.
III. Some pens are blades.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) None follows
(E) Only II and III follow
19. Statements : Some pencils are marbles. All marbles are buses. Some buses are trucks.Conclusions :I. Some trucks are pencils.
II. Some buses are pencils.
III. No truck is pencil.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only either I or III and II follow
(D) Only either I or III follows
(E) None of these
20. Statements : Some trees are jungles. Some jungles are flowers. All flowers are streets.Conclusions :I. Some streets are jungles.
II. Some streets are trees.
III. Some flowers are trees.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only I and II follow
(E) None of these
21. Statements : All desks are tables. All tables are chairs. Some chairs are sofas.Conclusions :
I. Some sofas are desks.
II. Some chairs are desks.
III. Some tables are desks.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All follow
(E) None of these
22. Statements : Some cycles are bikes. No bike is flower. All flowers are goats.Conclusions :I. No goat is cycle.
II. Some flowers are cycles.
III. Some goats are bikes.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II and III follow
23. Statements : All rivers are hills. All hills are rocks. Some rocks are sticks.Conclusions :I. Some sticks are hills.
II. Some sticks are rivers.
III. Some rocks are rivers.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II and III follow
24. Statements : All tyres are cars. All wheels are cars. All cars are trains.Conclusions :I. All tyres are trains.
II. Some trains are wheels.
III. Some trains are cars.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only I and II follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) Only II and III follow
(E) All follow
Directions (Q. 25 to 32)—In each questions below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of symbols and digits lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following codes and conditions and mark the letter of that combination as the answer. If none of the four combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer. Letter :
B M K A T R E U N H F I WD P
Digit/Symbol Code :
6 9 8 2 @ 1 # $ 3 ♦ 47 % 5 ©
Conditions :(i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, both are to be coded as the code for the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, codes for these two are to be interchanged.
(iii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.
Now based on the above, find out coded form of the letter groups given in each question.
25. RNWDEF
(A) 9 @ 3 ♦ 8 #
(B) # @ 3 ♦ 8 #
(C) # @ 3 ♦ 8 9
(D) # 3 ♦ @ 8 #
(E) None of these
26. MATRBW
(A) % © 6 9 7 3
(B) 3 © 6 9 7 3
(C) % © 6 9 7 %
(D) 3 © 6 9 7 %
(E) None of these
27. EDPKTA
(A) 8 ♦ 4 5 6 ©
(B) © ♦ 4 5 6 8
(C) 8 ♦ 4 5 6 8
(D) 8 ♦ 5 4 6 ©
(E) None of these
28. ABUHFI
(A) © 2 1 7 # $
(B) © 7 2 1 # ©
(C) $ 7 2 1 # $
(D) © 7 2 # 1 $
(E) None of these
29. WPTMBI
(A) $ 4 6 % 7 3
(B) 3 4 6 % 7 $
(C) 3 4 6 % 7 3
(D) $ 4 6 % 7 $
(E) None of these
30. FHITWU
(A) # 1 $ 6 3 #
(B) 2 1 $ 6 3 2
(C) # 1 # 6 3 2
(D) 2 1 $ 6 3 #
(E) None of these
31. HUDBRE(A) 1 2 7 ♦ 9 8
(B) 1 2 ♦ 7 9 8
(C) 8 2 ♦ 7 9 1
(D) 8 ♦ 2 7 9 1
(E) None of these
32. IMPNWK
(A) 5 % 4 @ 3 $
(B) $ % 4 @ 3 5
(C) $ % 4 @ 3 $
(D) 5 % 4 @ 3 5
(E) None of these
Directions (Q. 33 to 40)—Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input : 51 pour 32 start now 23 46 house
Step I : 23 51 pour 32 start now 46 house
Step II : 23 start 51 pour 32 now 46 house
Step III : 23 start 32 51 pour now 46 house
Step IV : 23 start 32 pour 51 now 46 house
Step V : 23 start 32 pour 46 51 now house
Step VI : 23 start 32 pour 46 now 51 house
and step VI is the last step of the rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate
step for the given input.
33. Step II of an input is :18 task bear cold dish 81 63 31 How many more steps will be required to
complete the rearrangement ?(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six
(E) None of these
34. Input :72 59 37 go for picnic 24 journey How many steps will take to complete the rearrangement ?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six
(E) None of these
35. Input :
nice flower 34 12 costly height 41 56
Which of the following will be step III ?
(A) 12 nice 34 height flower costly 41 56
(B) 12 nice 34 height 41 flower costly 56
(C) 12 nice 34 flower costly height 41 56
(D) 12 nice flower 34 costly height 41 56
(E) None of these
36. Step II of an input is :
16 victory 19 36 53 store lake town
Which of the following will be step V ?
(A) 16 victory 19 town store 36 53 lake
(B) 16 victory 19 town 36 store 53 lake
(C) 16 victory 19 town 36 53 store lake
(D) There will be no such step
(E) None of these
37. Step III of an input is
15 yes 29 ask for soap 42 37
Which of the following is definitely the input ?
(A) ask yes 29 15 for soap 42 37
(B) yes ask 15 29 for soap 42 37
(C) 29 15 yes ask for soap 42 37
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
38. Input :
milk pot 18 24 over goal 36 53
Which of the following steps will
be the last but one ?
(A) VI
(B) V
(C) VII
(D) VIII
(E) None of these
39. Step III of an input is :
36 win 44 95 86 ultra box queen How many more steps will required to complete the rearrangement ?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six
(E) None of these
40. Input :
new 22 model 27 pump 38 11 join
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement ?
(A) Four
(B) Five
(C) Six
(D) Seven
(E) None of these
Directions (Q. 41 to 45)—Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven friends working in a call center. Each of them has different day offs in a week from Monday to Sunday not necessarily in the same order. They work in three different shifts I, II and III with at least two of them in each shift. R works in shift II and his day off is not Sunday. P’s day off is Tuesday and he does not work in the same shift with either Q or W. None of those who work in shift I has day off either on Wednesday or on Friday. V works with only T in shift III. S’s day off is Sunday. V’s day off is immediate next day of that of R’s day off. T’s day off is not on Wednesday. W’s day off is not on the previous day of P’s day off. S works in shift I. Q does not work in the same shift with R and his day off is not on Thursday.
41. Which of the following is W’s day off ?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Monday
(C) Saturday
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
42. Which of the following is R’s day off ?
(A) Friday
(B) Thursday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Wednesday
(E) None of these
43. Which of the following groups of friends work in shift II ?
(A) RP
(B) RV
(C) QWS
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
44. Which of the following is Q’s day off ?
(A) Friday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Thursday
(D) Monday
(E) None of these
45. Which of the following groups of friends work in shift I ?
(A) RV
(B) RP
(C) QWS
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Directions (Q. 46 to 50)—In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions
numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the
statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the
statement give the answer—(A) If only Assumption I is implicit.
(B) If only Assumption II is implicit.
(C) If either I or II is implicit.
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit.
(E) If both I and II are implicit.
46. Statement : A nationalized bank issued an advertisement in the national dailies asking the eligible candidates for applying for 100 posts of chartered accountants.
Assumptions :
I. The eligible chartered accountants may respond to the advertisement.
II. There may be adequate number of eligible chartered accountants who may want to join a nationalized bank.
47. Statement : The municipal authority announced before the onset of monsoon that the roads within
the city will be free of potholes during monsoon.
Assumptions :
I. The roads were repaired so well that potholes may not reappear.
II. People may not complain even if the potholes reappear.
48. Statement : “Our Europe Holiday Package costs less than some of the holiday Packages within the country”—An advertisement by an Indian travel company.Assumptions :
I. People may prefer to travel to foreign destinations than to the places within the country at
comparable cost.
II. People generally take their travel decisions after getting information from such advertisements.
49. Statement : The retail vegetable vendors increased the prices of vegetables by about 20 per cent due to non-availability of vegetables at lower prices at the wholesale market.Assumptions :
I. The customers may totally stop buying vegetables at higher prices.
II. The customers may still buy vegetables from the retail vendors.
50. Statement : A large number of students and parents stood in the queue to collect forms for admission to various under-graduate courses in the college.Assumptions :
I. The college authority may be able to admit all those who stood in the queue.
II. The college authority may have adequate number of forms for all those standing in the queue.
Directions (Q. 51 to 56)—Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below :
M 4 E T % J 9 I B @ U 8 © N # W F 1 V 7 ♦ 2 A H 3 Y 5 $ 6 K
51. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the seventeenth fom the right end of the above arrangement ?(A) A
(B) %
(C) I
(D) Y
(E) None of these
52. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?4 T % 9 B @ 8 N # F V 7 ?
(A) 2 H 3
(B) 2 H Y
(C) ♦ A H
(D) ♦ A 3
(E) None of these
53. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?(A) J I T
(B) 3 5 A
(C) $ K Y
(D) A 3 ♦
(E) 8 © @
54. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant ?(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
55. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a symbol and immediately preceded by a consonant ?(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
56. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant but not immediately followed by a consonant ?(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Directions (Q. 57 to 63)—In the following questions, the symbols $, @, ©, % and # are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below :‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusions I, II and III given below them is / are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
57. Statements : M © T, T @ J, J # D
Conclusions :
I. D # T
II. D % T
III. D % M
(A) All are true
(B) Only I is true
(C) Only II is true
(D) Only either I or II is true
(E) Only either I or II and III are true
58. Statements : H $ J, J © M, M @ T
Conclusions :
I. H % M
II. H $ T
III. T % J
(A) Only I is true
(B) Only III is true
(C) Only II is true
(D) Only I and II are true
(E) None of these
59. Statements : R @ N, N % E, E # K
Conclusions :
I. R © K
II. K % N
III. E % R
(A) None is true
(B) Only I is true
(C) Only II is true
(D) Only III is true
(E) Only II and III are true
60. Statements : M © K, K % T, T $ R
Conclusions :
I. R © K
II. R © M
III. T © M
(A) Only I is true
(B) Only II is true
(C) Only III is true
(D) Only I and II are true
(E) None of these
61. Statements : D # W, W $ Z, Z % M
Conclusions :
I. Z @ D
II. M © D
III. D $ M
(A) Only I and II are true
(B) Only II and III are true
(C) Only I and III are true
(D) All are true
(E) None of these
62. Statements : K % N, N $ B, B © D
Conclusions :
I. D % N
II. K % D
III. B © K
(A) None is true
(B) Only II is true
(C) Only III is true
(D) Only I is true
(E) Only II and III are true
63. Statements : T # A, A $ B, B @ D
Conclusions :
I. D # A
II. D # T
III. B @ T
(A) None is true
(B) Only I is true
(C) Only II is true
(D) Only III is true
(E) Only II and III are true
Directions (Q. 64 to 70)—Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Following are the conditions for selecting Manager-Finance in an organisation. The candidate must—
(i) Be a graduate in any discipline with at least 50 per cent marks.
(ii) Be a post-graduate in Management with specialization in Finance.
(iii) Be at least 25 years and not more than 35 years as on 1.2.2008.
(iv) Have post qualification work experience of at least two years in the Accounts/Finance department
of an organization.
(v) Have secured at least 40 per cent marks in the selection process.
In the case of a candidate who satisfies all other criteria EXCEPT—
(a) At (ii) above, but has worked as Deputy Manager—Finance in an organization for at least three years, his/her case is to be referred to GeneralManager-Finance.
(b) At (v) above, but has secured at least 70 per cent marks in post graduation, his/her case is to be
referred to President-Finance.
In each question below, detailed information of one candidate is provided. You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark your answer accordingly. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in case of each candidate.
All these cases are given to you as on 1.2.2008, mark answer—
(A) If the candidate is not to be selected.
(B) If the data provided are not adequate to take a decision.
(C) If the case is to be referred to General Manager-Finance.
(D) If the case is to be referred to President-Finance.
(E) If the candidate is to be selected.
64. Neeta Kothari was born on 10th September 1975. She has been working in the Finance Dept. of an organization for the past four years after completing her MBA with Finance specialization. She has secured 60 per cent marks in the selection process.
65. Gopal Sharma has secured 60 per cent marks in graduation. He has been working in the Finance Dept. of an organization for the past four years after completing his MBA in Finance with 75 per cent marks. He was born on 25th may 1978. He has secured 39 per cent marks in the selection process.
66. Sikha Dwivedi was born on 8th March 1975. She has secured 60 per cent marks in both graduation and post graduation. She has been working in the Accounts Dept. of an organization for the past three years after completing her post graduation. She has secured 65 per cent marks in the selection process.
67. Samir Malhotra has secured 55 per cent marks in graduation and 65 per cent marks in MBAFinance. He has been working as Deputy Manager. Finance in an organization for the past four years after completing his MBA. He was born on 24th February 1980. He has secured 60 per cent marks in the selection process.
68. Somnath Banerjee was born on July 8, 1972. He has secured 65 per cent marks in both graduation and MBA-Finance. He has also secured 70 percent marks in the selection process. He has been working in the Accounts Dept. of an organization for the past three years after completing his MBA.
69. Ashok Chandra has secured 70 per cent marks in graduation and 65 per cent marks in MBAFinance. He has been working for the past three years in the Finance Dept. of an organization after completing his MBA. He has secured 35 per cent marks in the selection process. He was born on 16th December 1979.
70. Avinash Chopra has been working as Deputy Manager. Finance in an organization for the past four years after completing graduation with 65 per cent marks. He has also done a diploma in Finance Management. He has secured 55 per cent marks in the selection process. He was born on 3rd April, 1978.
Answers :
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (E) 6. (C) 7. (A) 1st, 4th and 7th digits of the number 4 6 7 1 3 5 8 and 4, 1 and 8 respectively. The number
formed with these digits is 841 which is the perfect square of two digit odd number 29. The digit at
10th place it is 2.
8. (D) 9. (E) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (B)
13. (E) All the rest are the parts of a tree.
14. (C)
15. (C) All the rest birds can see.
16. (C)
17. (E) 2nd, 5th, 6th and 10th letters of the word STREAMLINE are T, A, M and E respectively. The
meaningful words formed with these letters are : TEAM, TAME, MEAT and MATE.
18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (A) 21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (E)
25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (E) 29. (A) 30. (D) 31. (C) 32. (C)
33. (C) Step II : 18 task bear cold dish 81 63 31
Step III : 18 task 31 bear cold dish 81 63
Step IV : 18 task 31 dish bear cold 81 63
Step V : 18 task 31 dish 63 bear cold 81
Step VI : 18 task 31 dish 63 cold bear 81
Step VII : 18 task 31 dish 63 cold 81 bear
Hence, 5 more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement.
34. (D) Input : 72 59 37 go for picnic 24 journey
Step I : 24 72 59 37 go for picnic journey
Step II : 24 picnic 72 59 37 go for journey
Step III : 24 picnic 37 72 59 go for journey
Step IV : 24 picnic 37 journey 72 59 go for
Step V : 24 picnic 37 journey 59 72 go for
Step VI : 24 picnic 37 journey 59 go 72 for
Hence, VI steps will be required to complete the rearrangement.
35. (A) Input # nice flower 34 12 costly height 41 56.
Step I : 12 nice flower 34 costly height 41 56.
Step II : 12 nice 34 flower costly height 41 56.
Step III : 12 nice 34 height flower costly 41 56
36. (D) Step II : 16 victory 19 36 53 store lake town
Step III : 16 victory 19 town 36 53 store lake
Step IV : 16 victory 19 town 36 store 53 lake There is no V step.
37. (D)
38. (B) Input : milk pot 18 24 over goal 36 53
Step I : 18 milk pot 24 over goal 36 53
Step II : 18 pot milk 24 over goal 36 53
Step III : 18 pot 24 milk over goal 36 53
Step IV : 18 pot 24 over milk goal 36 53
Step V : 18 pot 24 over 36 milk goal 53
Step VI : 18 pot 24 over 36 milk 53 goal
The last step is VI.
Hence, the prelast step is V.
39. (A) Step III : 36 win 44 95 86 ultra box queen
Step IV : 36 win 44 ultra 95 86 box queen
Step V : 36 win 44 ultra 86 95 box queen
Step VI : 36 win 44 ultra 86 queen 95 box.
Hence, 3 more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement.
40. (A) Input : new 22 model 27 pump 38 11 join.
Step I : 11 new 22 model 27 pump 38 join.
Step II : 11 pump new 22 model 27 38 join.
Step III : 11 pump 22 new model 27 38 join.
Step IV : 11 pump 22 new 27 model 38 join.
Hence, four steps will be required to complete the rearrangement.
41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (E) 47. (A) 48. (E) 49. (D) 50. (B)
51. (A) 17th from the right end is N and 9th to the right from N is A.
52. (A) 53. (E) 54. (D) 55. (C) 56. (B) 57. (E) 58. (B) 59. (A) 60. (A) 61. (D) 62. (C) 63. (D)
64. (B) Nothing is said about the marks obtained by Neeta Kothari in graduate examination.
65. (D) Gopal Sharma fulfils all the conditions excepts (v) and accordingly to (b) he obtained marks in
M.B.A. more than 70%. So his case will be referred to President-Finance.
66. (A) Sikha Dwivedi neither fulfils the condition (ii) nor (a). Hence she is not to be selected.
67. (E) Samir Malhotra fulfils all the conditions. So he is to be selected.
68. (A) The age of Somnath Banerjee is more than 35 years. So he is not to be selected.
69. (A) Ashok Chandra neither fulfils the condition (v) nor (b). Hence, he is not to be selected.
70. (C) Nothing is said about the marks obtained by Avinash Chopra, but according to condition (a), all
are fulfil except condition (ii). The case is to be referred to General Manager Finance.